Effect of changing shipping addresses on the actual shipping cost.

[mopata]

I recently had a sale of and auction. After a few hours, I sent the bidder an invoice that showed the correct shipping cost to his home address based on the ebay calculator. He paid a couple of days later with a revised address on the West Coast (probably a gift). The actual shipping cost came out about 50% higher than the invoiced and paid amount. I don't blame the buyer, most people aren't aware of the huge changes in the zoned postal rates. But, shouldn't ebay adjust the shipping cost (up or down) when buyers make changes to the shipping address that affect the cost? It seems like it would be a fairly easy thing to address.

[lintbrush*]

eBay sends and invoice at the end of the auction which reflects the shipping charges based on the buyer's address and the shipping information in the listing.

There is no reason to send an invoice for a single item as long as the information you put in the structured listing is accurate.

When you do, you lock in the shipping price - which you've learned can be wrong.

[dtexley3]

As lintbrush stated sending the invoice "locks in" the shipping rate.  In most cases buyers don't understand that, but there are a few that will try to use this to their advantage.  The seller has the right to cancel the sale as "problem with buyer's address" in these cases.  The invoice shipping quote was based on a specific zone, changing the zone after the invoice was generated is "asking for something not in the listing".  You can, if you choose, cancel without taking a penalty.  You can message the buyer and offer to create a BIN listing for the item at the bid price + the correct shipping for the destination and ask them to repurchase using the  correct destination address.  An honest buyer will do so, the scammers will moan and complain...

[fern*wood]

As others noted, it would have calculated properly when the buyer paid if you had not sent the invoice.    It seems odd to me that sending an invoice does this, but you are proof that it does.

[dtexley3]

---

@fern*wood wrote:

As others noted, it would have calculated properly when the buyer paid if you had not sent the invoice.    It seems odd to me that sending an invoice does this, but you are proof that it does.

---

The purpose of generating an invoice is to "lock in" some sort of special pricing, such as an agreed up combined shipping rate or discount, so whatever you set as the shipping is going to be what the buyer is charged.  It doesn't have an option to maintain the calculated shipping AND still offer special discounts or pricing....

[sfginsider]

I have this happen a lot. I sell items to mostly Californians given the type of item they are. However, occasionally I get fans on the east coast or from elsewhere and the shipping coast is exponentially different. Try to make sure you don't use a set price and use the calculator so its accurate. Not sure what else to say. Sometimes you have to bite the bullet. You can always consider telling the buyer and they may be nice but they wouldn't be required to send any more skrilla